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2014-06-30
As far as I know, if a confidence interval of a parameter covers 0, then this parameter is said to be statistically insignificant at this level. I am wondering whether this is the case for a Bayesian interval. In other words, if a Bayesian interval of a parameter covers 0, then can this parameter said to be statistically insignificant?
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2014-6-30 22:53:50
In a Bayesian framework, you talk about posterior probabilities rather than significance. So if an equal-tailed interval for a parameter is centred around positive values but still covers 0, then you can say there's over a 2.5% probability that the parameter isn't actually positive.
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