A percent and B percent are the variables that those assets price percent change after 10 days. They follows the normal distribution according to your question.
The wealth function I give you is in dollar value, like 1000 * 83 * (1 + A percent), it means the A asset dollar value after 10 days. Concretely, if after 10 days, A changes -10%, then A asset dollar value is 1000 * 83 * (1 - 10%).
However, A/B percent are correlated variables, so when u calculate wealth variance, u should consider covariance. And the unit in wealth function has already converted to dollar value rather than percent.
To connect wealth to VaR, u just need to calculate inverseN(1%), which represents the worst 1% circumstances in wealth function.
