1. CDS spread has some relationship with credit spread, but they are not the same thing
2. What your advisor says, in my opinion is something like pricing derivative with counter-party default risk, not credit derivative. For example, Citi buys an option from other financial institution, at last, the option ends in the money so Citi want to exercise, but the counter-party may default (e.g. do not have enough stock to make the delivery). In this case, this options price should also consider the default risk, which of course will make it cheaper.
If the default risk is from the counter-party, the credit spread you should use is from the counter-party not Citi. If the conter-party has some bonds in the market, you can use its yield minus the yield of the T-bond, to get the spread. I think Hull's book has some discussion and questions on this. Probablely Chapter 23 or 24 of the 8ed.
Of course, Citi can hedge the defualt risk with CDS, but that is probably not a direct hedge.
Thank u for your help again.
In this case, the citibank has issued the bonus certificate. I think, the price of the certificate without credit risk is the theoretical price, which i have got it with the pricing formula. And for the investors or buyers of the bonus certificate, the counterparty is citibank. So, what i neeed to put in the the formula for the price with credit risk is the credit spread of citibank,right?
p.s.: what is T-bond?
what the upper floor said is also a good way to deal with this.
Approximately, there is a relationship between default intensity and the CDS spread. lambda=spread/(1-recovery rate),if you assume zero recovery,then lambda=CDS spread which is suggested by the upper floor. After you get the default intensity you can calculate the survival probability which is the so-called risky discount factor exp(-lambda*T) so that you can get the derivative's price with default:
V_risky=exp(-lambda*T)*V_riskfree