aliceww2012 发表于 2013-5-20 17:44 
我再把我的问题描述下:Klein, P.C. “Pricing Black-Scholes Options with Correlated
Credit Risk.” Jo ...
OK, I briefly go through the paper.
I give an example:
suppose you want to solve E*(ST|ST>K,VT>D).
The thing you want to do is to write it into E*(ST)E(?)(I{ST>K,VT>D}) where I{} is an indicator function taking 1 only when ST>K and VT>D.
I think your question is want to know how to use Girsanov to change from risk neutral measure (*) to the new unknown measure (?)
To do this, you have to construct a likelihood ratio to "eliminate" ST.
E*(ST|ST>K,VT>D)=E*(ST) E*(I{ST>K,VT>D}*ST/E*(ST)), if you take ST/E*(ST) as a likelihood ratio, you can change the measure from * to ?
that is E*(ST) E*(I{ST>K,VT>D}*ST/E*(ST))=E*(ST) E(?)(I{ST>K,VT>D})
your next task is to find out the drift of S and V in the new measure using Girsanov.
Note that ST/E*(ST)=St*exp((r-0.5*sigma^2)(T-t)+sigma*W(T-t))/(St*exp(r(T-t))
so ST/E*(ST)=exp(-0.5*sigma^2*(T-t)+sigma*W(T-t))
=exp(-∫(t to T)0.5(-sigma)^2ds -∫(t to T) (-sigma)dW(s))
we know that ST/E*(ST) is the likelihood ratio
dQ(?)/dQ(*)=exp(-∫(t to T)0.5(-sigma)^2ds -∫(t to T) (-sigma)dW(s))
what the Girsanov theorem says is that if dW is a brownian motion under Q* measure, dW+theta*dt is also a brownian motion under Q(?) measure. The two measures are linked with the likelihood ratio:
dQ(?)/dQ(*)=exp(-∫(t to T)0.5(theta)^2ds -∫(t to T) (theta)dW(s))
So you compare the two dQ(?)/dQ(*) and find out that theta=-sigma (sigma here means the volatility of S)
this gives you the result that under Q(?) measure the drift of dS and dV are r+sigma_S^2 and r+sigma_V*sigma_S.
You now have the joint distribution of S and V under the new measure.
The remaining task is just to integrate the bivariate joint lognormal on the area ST>K and VT>D, its easy.