meiyixuan315 发表于 2015-2-28 02:57 
If r.v(random variable) x has a uniform distribution in (0,1), then the cdf of r.v F-1(x)(F-1 is the ...
English is ok. However, I don't quite understand why Pr(F-1(x)<X)=Pr(x<F(X)=F(x) ?
I still don't understand the relationship between uniform distribution and normal distribution.
I am sorry , but you can explain more details? thx a lot~